Followers

Best Blogger Tips

Which of the following country is not a member of G-7?

Japan
Russia
France
Italy

The Central Processing Unit is an embedded chip that acts as the 'brains' of a computer. What Intel chip was used in the Altair (the first real person

6502
8080
6400
8286

The electromagnetic coils on the neck of the picture tube or tubes which pull the electron beam from side to side and up and down are called a...?

Transformer
Yoke
Capacitor
Diode

The process that involves the eroded material being dissolved and carried along in water as individual ions is called

solution
suspension
saltation
traction

IMPORTANT ABBREVIATIONS AND THEIR FULL FORM - P TO Z

Short Name Full Form or Abbreviations
PIN Postal Index Number
PSLV Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
PWD Public Works Department;
R&D Research and Development
RADAR Radio Detecting and Ranging
RAM Random Access Memory
RAW Research & Analysis Wing
RBI Reserve Bank of India
RDX Research Department Explosive (Cyclotrim-ethylin Trinitrate)
RISC Reduced instruction-set computing
RNA Ribonucleic acid
ROM Read Only Memory
RPM Revolutions Per Minute
RTI Right to Information
SAIL Steel Authority of India Limited
SARS Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
SCSI Small Computer Systems Interface
SEBI Securities and Exchange Board of India
SENSEX Sensitivity Index (of Share Price)
SEZ Special Economic Zone
SGPC Siromani Gurudwara Prabandak Committee
SIM Subscriber Information Module
SLV Satellite Launch Vehicle
SMS Short Message Service
SMTP Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
STD Subscriber Trunk Dialling; Sexually Transmitted Diseases
TADA Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act
TCP Transfer Call Protocol
Transmission Control Protocol
TELCO Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company
TFT Thin-Film Transistor
TIFR Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
TISCO Tata Iron and Steel Company
TOEFL Test of English as a Foreign Language
UAV Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
UGC University Grants Commission
ULFA United Liberation Front of Asom
UNESCO United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organi-sation
UNI United News of India
UNICEF United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (now, 'United Nations Children's Fund')
UNU United Nations University
UPA United Progressive Alliance
UPSC Union Public Service Commission
URL Uniform Resource Locator
VAT Value Added Tax
VCR Video Cassette Recorder
VIP Very Important Person
VIRUS Vital Information Resources Under Siege
VRML Virtual Reality Modelling Language
VRS Voluntary Retirement Scheme
VSSC Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
WHO World Health Organisation
WMO World Meteorological Organisation
WTO World Trade Orga-nisation
WWF World Wildlife Fund
WWW World Wide Web
WYSIWYG What you see is what you get
XML Extensible Mark-up Language
YMCA Young Men's Christian Association
ZIP Zone Improvement Plan

IMPORTANT ABBREVIATIONS AND THEIR FULL FORM - I TO P

Short Name Full Form or Abbreviations
IPO Initial Public Offering
IPS Indian Police Service; Inter Press Service
IQ Intelligence Quotient
IRC International Red Cross
IRDP Integrated Rural Development Programme
IRS Indian Revenue Service
ISBN International Standard Book Number
ISDN Integrated Services Digital Network
ISI Indian Standards Institution; Inter Services Intelligence
ISKCON International Society for Krishna Consciousness
ISO International Standards Organisation
ISRO Indian Space Research Organisation
IST Indian Standard Time
ITBP Indo-Tibetan Border Police
ITES Information Technology enabled services
ITI Indian Telephone Industries
Industrial Training Institute
ITU International Telecommunication Union
IVF In-Vitro Fertilisation
IVM In-vitro Maturation
JCO Junior Commissioned Officer
JEE Joint Entrance Examination
JPEG Joint Photographic Expert Group
LASER Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
LCA Light Combat Aircraft
LCD Liquid Crystal Display
Least Common Denominator
LCM Lowest Common Multiple
LIC Life Insurance Corporation (of India)
LLB Bachelor of Laws
LMC Large Megallanic Cloud
LTTE Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam
M.A. Magisiter Artium (Master of Arts)
M.D Doctor of Medicine
MBA Master of Business Administration
MBBS Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery
MCC Marylebone Cricket Club
MCI Medical Council of India
MICR Magnetic ink character recognition
MIDI Musical Instrument Digital Interface
MIPS Million Instructions per Second
MIT Massachusetts Institute of Technology; Master Instruction Tape
MLA Member of Legislative Assembly
MNC Multi-National Corporation
MODEM modulator demodulator
MP Member of Parliament; Madhya Pradesh
MPEG Motion Picture Experts Group
MRCP Member of the Royal College of Physicians
MTCR Missile Technology Control Regime
MVC Maha Vir Chakra
NAAC National Assessment and Accreditation Council
NABARD National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
NAFED National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation
NALCO National Aluminium Company Ltd.
NASA National Aeronautics and Space Ad ministration
NASDAQ National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation
NASSCOM National Association of Software and Service Companies
NATO North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
NAV Net Asset Value
NCERT National Council of Educational Research and Training
NCSA National Centre for Supercomputing Applications; National Computer Security Association
NDA National Defence Academy
NOC No Objection Certificate
NPA Non-performing Assets
NPT Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
NRF National Renewal Fund
NSUI National Students Union of India
NTPC National Thermal Power Corporation
OBC Other Backward Classes
OCR Optical Character Recognition
ONGC Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
OOP Object Oriented Programme
OPEC Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries
OSCAR Orbiting Satellite Carrying Amateur Radio
PAN Permanent Account Number
Ph.D. Doctor of Philosophy (Philosophiae Doctor)
PIL Public Interest Litigation

IMPORTANT ABBREVIATIONS AND THEIR FULL FORM - E TO I

Short Name Full Form or Abbreviations
E & OE Errors and Omissions Excepted
EDI Electronic Data Interchange
EIS Executive Information System
E-MAIL Electronic Mailing
EMI Equated Monthly Instalments
ENIAC Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator
ENT Ear, Nose and Throat
EOF end of file
EOT Eastern Daylight Time
EPABX Electronic Private Automatic Branch Exchange
ERNET Educational and Research Network
FAQ Frequently Asked Question
FBI Federal Bureau of Investigation
FBT Fringe Benefit Tax
FBTR Fast Breeder Test Reactor
FBW Fly-By-Wire
FCI Food Corporation of India; Fertilizer Corporation of India
FDI Foreign Direct Investment
FEMA Foreign Exchange Management Act
FICCI Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
FIFA International Football Federation (Fed eration Internationale de Football Associa tion)
FIR First Information Report
FM Frequency modulation
FRCP Fellow of the Royal College of Physicians
FRCS Fellow of the Royal College of Surgeons
FRCS Fellow of the Royal Geographical Society
FRS Fellow of the Royal Society
G7 Group of Seven (US, UK, Germany, France, Italy, japan and Canada) G8 includes G7 plus Russia
GATE Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineer ing
GATS General Agreement on Trade and Ser vices
GDP Gross Domestic Product
GMAT Graduate Management Admission Test
GMT Greenwich Mean Time
GSLV Geo-Synchronous Satellite Launch Ve hicle
GSM Global System for Mobile Communica tions
GSP Generalised System Preference
GUI Graphical User Interface
HAL Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
HIV Human Immunodeficiency Virus
HMI Himalayan Mountaineering Institute
HTML Hyper Text Markup Language
HUDCO Housing and Urban Development Corp.
HVAC Heating, Ventilating and Air Conditioning
i.e. id est (that is)
IAAI International Airport Authority of India
IAEA International Atomic Energy Agency
IARI Indian Agricultural Research Institute
IAS Indian Administrative Service
IATA International Air Transport Association
IBM International Business Machines
ICSE Indian Certificate of Secondary Educa tion
ICU Intensive Care Unit
ICWA Indian Council of World Affairs
IDA International Development Agency
IDBI Industrial Development Bank of India
IEEE Institute of Electronics and Electrical Engineers
IELTS International English Language Testing System
IFC Industrial Finance Corporation, International Finance Corporation
IFS Indian Foreign Service; Indian Forest Service
IGNOU Indira Gandhi National Open Uni versity
IIPA Indian Institute of Public Administration
IISCO Indian Iron and Steel Company
IISS International Institute of Strategic Stud ies
IIT Indian Institute of Technology
ILA Indian Library Association
ILO International Labour Organisation
IMAP Internet Mail Access Protocol
IMF International Monetary Fund
INA Indian National Army
INTUC Indian National Trade Union Con gress
IOC Indian Oil Corporation
IP Internet Protocol
IPC Indian Penal Code
IPCL Indian Petro-Chemicals Corporation Ltd
IPI International Press Institute

IMPORTANT ABBREVIATIONS AND THEIR FULL FORM : A-D

3G Third Generation
AAA Asian Athletics Association
AAFI The Amateur Athletics Federation of India
AC Ante Christum (Before Christ), Ashok Chakra, Air Conditioner
ADB Asian Development Bank
AFI Athletics Federation of India
AFMC Armed Forces Medical College
AI Artifical Intelligence, Air India
AICTE All India Council for Technical Education
AIFF All India Football Federation
AIIMS All India Institute of Medical Science
AITUC All India Trade Union Congress
ALGOL Algebric Oriented Language
AM Ante Meridiem (before Noon), Amplitude Modulation
APEC Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation
ARPANET Advanced Research Project Agency Network
ASCII American Standard Code for Informa tion Interchange
ASEAN Association of South East Asian Na tions
ASLV Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle
AT&T American Telegraphic and Telephone Co. Ltd.
ATC Air Traffic Control
ATM Automated Teller Machine
AVSM Ati Vishisht Seva Medal
B2B Busines to Business
B2C Business to Consumer
BARC Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
BBC British Broadcasting Corporation
BBS Bulletin Board Service
BC Before Christ
BHEL Bharat Heavy Electri-cals Ltd
BIOS Basic Input Output System
BIT Binary Digit
BPL Below Poverty Line
BPO Business Process Outsourcing
BPR Business Process Re-engineering
bps bytes per second
BSE Bombay Stock Exchange
BSF Border Security Force
BSNL Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
C2C Consumer to Consumer
CA Chartered Accountant
CAD Com puter Aided Design
CAT Common Admis sion Test
CBI Central Bureau of Investigation
CBSE Central Board of Secondary Education
CDAC Centre for the Development of Ad vanced Computing
CDMA Code Division Multiple Access
CEO Chief Executive Officer
CFSL Central Forensic Science Laboratory
CGI Common Gateway Interface
CIA Central Intelligence Agency
CID Criminal Investigation Department
CISC Complex instruction-set computing
CITU Centre of Indian Trade Unions
CNN Cable News Network
COMSAT Communications Satellite Corporation
COPRA Consumer Protection Act
CORBA Common Object Request Broker Architecture
CPI(M) Communist Party of India / Marxist
CPWD Central Public Works Department
CRIS Centre for Railway Information System
CSIR Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
CTBT Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
CYMK Cyan, Yellow, Magenta, Kinda
D.Litt. Doctor of Literature
D.Phil. Doctor of Philosophy
D.Sc Doctor of Science
DC Direct Current
DIG Deputy Inspector General
DMA Direct Memory Access
DMK Dravida Munetra Kazhagam
DNA Deoxyribo-nucleic Acid
DTP Desktop Publishing
DVC Damodar Valley Corporation
DVD Digital Versatile/Video Disc

IMPORTANT CURRENT AFFAIR ON BUSINESS AND ECONOMY FOR BANK PO/MBA ENTRANCE

1. The present Director General of Foreign Trade(DGFT) is …
(a) Amitabh Jain (b) R.S. Gujaral
(c) Sanjay Rastogi (d) Vinod Kumar Shrivastava


2. Which of the following is the longest National Highway of India?
(a) National Highway No. 5 (b) National Highway No. 7
(c) National Highway No. 8 (d) National Highway No. 9


3. Which of the following represents the number of major sea ports of India?
(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 13


4. “Golden Quadrilateral”, is the name of the project that is linked with…
(a) waterways (b) airways
(c) roadways (d) None of these


5. Which of the following represents the present Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR) as on September 30,2009?
(a) 4.5% (b) 4.75%
(c) 5% (d) 5.25%


6. As per the World Competitiveness Report 2009-2010, which of the following is the most competitive economy of the world?
(a) USA (b) Switzerland
(c) Singapore (d) Sweden


7. As per the World Competitiveness Report 2009-2010, which of the following represents the rank of India?
(a) 47 (b) 48
(c) 49 (d) 50


8. As per the Corruption Perception Index (CPI)-2008 by Transparency International, the rank of India is...
(a) 81 (b) 83
(c) 85 (d) 87


9. Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was set up in the year 1965 at …
(a) Surat (b) Kandla
(c) Hyderabad (d) Vishakhapattnam


10. As per the Population Census 2001, which of the following represents the density of population of India?
(a) 267 persons per sq. km (b) 278 persons per sq. km
(c) 284 persons per sq. km (d) 325 persons per sq. km


11. Which of the following is NOT a component of Bharat Nirman?
(a) Irrigation Potential (b) Rural Telephony
(c) Rural Housing (d) Primary Education




12. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana was launched in ….
(a) 1999 (b) 2000
(c) 2002 (d) 2005


13. Who is the winner of the World Food Prize-2009?
(a) Gebisa Ejeta (b) Philip E. Nelson
(c) Robert Dole & George McGovern (d) None of these


14. Which of the following represents the WPI inflation as on March 28, 2009?
(a) 0.4% (b) 0.6%
(c) 0.8% (d) 0.9%


15. This person has been appointed as the chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India recently. Can you name him from the given options?
(a) Sam Pitroda (b) Nanadan Nilekani
(c) K V Kamath (d) C. Rangarajan


16. National Dairy Development Board was established in the year ….
(a) 1963 (b) 1965
(c) 1967 (d) 1969


17. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about World Trade Organization (WTO)?
(a) This International Organization deals with the rules of trade between the nations of the world.
(b) The core functions of WTO includes, resolving trade disputes, administering WTO trade
agreements, Monitoring the national trade policies, providing forum for trade negotiations.
(c) Established after the replacement of GATS in 1994, this organization is headquartered at New
York and is headed by its Director General Pascal Lamy.
(d) All of the above are true.


18. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the World Bank?
(a) It is a main source of technical and financial assistance to the developing nations of the world.
(b) It comprises of two development based institutions: International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD) and International Development Association (IDA)
(c ) The IBRD focuses on the poorest countries of the world , whereas IDA focuses on the middle
income and poor countries that are creditworthy in nature.
(d) The affiliates of World Bank are: International Finance Corporation, Multilateral Investment
Guarantee Agency(MIGA) International Center for Settlement of Investment Disputes(ICSID)


19. Which of the following represents the number of the member countries of “Euro Zone”?
(a) 12 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 18


20. Which of the following person is the chairman of then State Bank of India ?
(a) K.C. Chakraborty (b) A.K. Purwar
(c) O.P. Bhatt (d) Deepak Parekh




21. As per the Union Budget 2009-2010, which of the following represents the fiscal deficit as a percentage of the GDP(as per provisional accounts) in 2008-2009?
(a) 4.5% (b) 5.3%
(c) 6.2% (d) 7.1%


22. Which of the following represents the target for agriculture credit flow in the year 2009-2010?
(a) Rs. 287000 cr (b) Rs. 325000 cr
(c) Rs. 360000 cr (d) Rs. 400000 cr


23. Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana is applicable to those villages that have population of Scheduled Castes above ….
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) None of these


24. National Livelihood Mission is the new avtar of ….
(a) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (b) Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana
(c) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act


25. As per the Union Budget , which of the following represents the percentage increase in the total expenditure in the Budget Estimates 2009-2010 over Budget Estimates 2008-2009?
(a) 26% (b) 29%
(c) 33% (d) 36%


26. Where would you find National Institute of Rural Development of India (NIRD)?
(a) Bhopal (b) Hyderabad
(c) Lucknow (d) None of these


27 Which of the following represents the venue of the 2012 Olympics?
(a) Madrid, Spain (b) London, UK
(c) Rio de Janerio, Brazil (d) Tokyo, Japan


28. Which of the following represents the year in which the Regional Rural Banks came into existence?
(a) 1973 (b) 1975
(c) 1977 (d) 1979


29. Who is the present President of the Confederation of Indian Industries of India?
(a) K.V. Kamath (b) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(c) Venu Srinivasan (d) Kumar Mangalam Birla


30. The present Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) of India is …
(a) V.N. Kaul (b) Vinod Kumar Rai
(c) Wajahat Habibullah (d) Goolam E. Vahanwati


31. Which of the following is the causative virus strain of Swine Flu?
(a) A H1N1 (b) A H1N5
(c) A H5N1 (d) A H1N3




ANSWERS
1. b R.S. Gujaral
2. b NH-7
3. c 12
4. c roadways
5. c 5%
6. b Switzerland
7. c 49
8. c 85
9. b Kandla
10. d 24 persons per sq. km
11. d Primary Education
12. b 2000
13. a Gebisa Ejeta
14. c 0.8%
15. b Nandan Nilekani
16. b 1965
17. c Established after the replacement of GATS in 1994,this organization is headquartered at New York and is
headed by its Director General Pascal Lamy.
18. c The IBRD focuses on the poorest countries of the
world, whereas IDA focuses on the middle income
and poor countries that are creditworthy in nature.
19. c 16
20. c O.P. Bhatt
21. c 6.2%
22. b Rs. 325000 cr
23. b 50%
24. a Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
25. d 36%
26. b Hyderabad
27. b London, UK
28. b 1975
29. c Venu Srinivasan
30. b Vinod Kumar Rai
31. a A H1N1

Data Entry Operator gk

Data Entry Operator
1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India


10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the `Sugar Bowl' of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world's highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. `The Vedas contain all the truth' was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

Latest General Awareness Part 1

Latest General Awareness Part 1

1. In which State was the first non- Congress Government set up in Independent India?
[a] Punjab [b] Bihar
[c] Maharashtra [d] Kerala.
2. Cheep money means
[a] low rates of interest. [b] low level of saving.
[c] low level of income. [d] low level of standard of living.
3. Under the rules of the IMR, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal tender money in terms of the US dollars and
[a] Silver. [b] Gold.
[c] Pound Sterling. [d] Diamond.
4. The Government takes 'Ways and means advances' from
[a] RBI. [b] IDBI.
[c] SBI. [d] ICICI.
5. Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in
[a] 1991. [b] 1996.
[c] 1998. [d] 2000.
6. Compared to the rich the poor save
[a] a large part of their income. [b] an equal part of their income.
[c] a smaller part of their income.[d] all of their incomes.
7. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is
[a] imposition of import duties. [b] liberalization of the economy.
[c] recession in other countries. [d] diversification of exports.
8. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is
[a] Deflation. [b] Inflation.
[c] Recession. [d] Stagflation.
9. With which crop has Green Revolution been associated?
[a] Rice [b] Wheat
[c] Pulses [d] Sugarcane.
10. Who was the first Indian Governor-General of India ?
[a] B.R. Ambedkar [b] C.Rajagopalachari
[c] Dr. Rajendra Prasad [d] Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
11. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
[a] 21 years of age. [b] 25 years of age.
[c] 30 years of age. [d] 32 years of age.
12. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
[a] 42nd [b] 44th
[c] 52nd [d] 56th .
13. Nov. 26, 1949 is a significant day in the history of our constitution because
[a] India took a pledge of complete independence on this day.
[b] the Constitution was adopted on this day.
[c] India became a Republic on the day.
[d] the first amendment of the Constitution was passed on this day.
14. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the India Constitutions?
[a] Sovereign Democratic Republic
[b] Socialist [c] Secular
[d] Federal.
15. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
[a] S.Radhakrishnan [b] Rajendra Prasad
[c] Zakir Hussain [d] V.V. Giri.
16. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People [Lok Sabha] is
[a] 530. [b] 545.
[c] 540. [d] 550.
17. How many readings does a non-Money Bill have in each House of the Parliament?
[a] Two [b] Three
[c] Four [d] One.
18. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the
[a] Governor of the State.
[b] Chief Minister of the State.
[c] Speaker of Legislative Assembly.
[d] Finance Minister of the State
19. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
[a] Indira Gandhi. [b] Morarji Desai.
[c] V.P. Singh. [d] Chandrashekhar.
20. The Union Parliament consists of
[a] the President of India.
[b] the Council of States [Rajya Sabha].
[c] the House of the People [Lok Sabha]
[d] All of these.
21. The Indian National Congress had passed the famous resolution on "Non-Cooperation" in 1920 as its session held at
[a] Lucknow. [b] Delhi.
[c] Bombay. [d] Calcutta.
22. Who is known as the 'Grand Old Man of India'?
[a] Dadabhai Naoroji [b] Gopal Krishan Gokhale
[c] Bal Gangadhar Tilak [d] Surendranath Banerjee.
23. Which of the following can be considered as the most useful and outstanding reforms made by Lord Curzon, especially in respect of the people living in the undivided province of Punjab?
[a] Educational Reforms [b] Police Reforms
[c] Industrial Reforms [d] Agricultural Reforms
24. Who among the following was sent as an Ambassasdor to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the then King of England?
[a] John Hawkins [b] William Todd
[c] Sir Thomas Roe [d] Sir Walter Raleigh.
25. 'Dyarchy' was introduced in the Government of India Act of
[a] 1909. [b] 1919.
[c] 1935. [d] None of these.
26. The transfer of Government from the 'Company' to the 'Crown' was pronounced by Lord Canning [Nov. 1, 1858] at
[a] Calcutta. [b] Delhi.
[c] Patan. [d] Allahabad.
27. The India National Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other in 1916 at
[a] Lahore. [b] Amritsar.
[c] Lucknow. [d] Haripura.
28. The first General-Secretary of the Indian National Congress was
[a] Dadabhai Naoroji [b] A.O. Hume
[c] Ferozeshah Mehta [d] Badruddin Tyabji.
29. Raja Rammohun Roy organized a historic agitation against the
[a] caste system. [b] evil custom of sati.
[c] degrading position of women in society
[d] Practice of superfluous religious rituals.
30. "Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge…"
This was stated on the night of Aug. 14, 1947 by
[a] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. [b] C.Rajagopalachari.
[c] Jawaharlal Nehru. [d] Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
31. The highest grade and best quality coal is
[a] Lignite. [b] Peat.
[c] Bituminous. [d] Anthracite.
32. The "Dark Continent" is
[a] Africa. [b] South America.
[c] Australia. [d] Asia.
33. Which one of the following is the wettest place in India?
[a] Mahabaleshwar [b] Cherrapunji
[c] Udhagamandalam [d] Mawsynram.
34. The approximate length of the coast-line of India is
[a] 5,500 km. [b] 6,000 km.
[c] 6,500 km. [d] 7,000 km.
35. The area with annual rainfall less than 50 cm in a year is
[a] Meghalaya. [b] Leh in Kashmir.
[c] Coromandel [d] Konkan coast.
36. Silent Valley of Kerala
[a] is the only evergreen forest in India.
[b] contains costly timber trees.
[c] is a good picnic spot.
[d] contains rare species of plants and animals.
37. The only sanctuary where Kashmir stag is found is
[a] Kanha. [b] Dachigam.
[c] Gir. [d] Mudumalai.
38. The Visvesvaraya Iron & Steel Ltd. is located at
[a] Bangalore. [b] Bhadravati.
[c] Mangalore. [d] Mysore.
39. Which dam of India is the highest?
[a] Mettur [b] Rihand
[c] Thein [d] Bhakra.
40. Of the gross cropped area in India, the foodgrains occupy
[a] more than 70 per cent. [b] 60 to 70 per cent.
[c] 50 to 60 per cent. [d] less than 50 per cent.
41. Kaziranga National Park is famous for
[a] Rhinoceros. [b] Tiger.
[c] Lion. [d] Crocodile.
42. The colour of human skin is produced by
[a] Haemoglobin. [b] Insulin.
[c] Adrenaline. [d] Melanin.
43. Which one of the following is not transmitted via blood transfusion?
[a] Hepatitis [b] Typhoid
[c] HIV [d] Malaria
44. Which of the following is a fish?
[a] Silverfish [b] Starfish
[c] Dogfish [d] Cuttlefish
45. Which of the following instruments is used to measure humidity?
[a] Kata Thermometer [b] Anemometer
[c] Sling Psychrometer [d] Clinical Thermometer
46. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is
[a] 24 hours [b] 30 days.
[c] 365 days. [d] changing, continuously.
47. The type of mirrors used in the headlamp of cars is
[a] parabolic concave [b] plane
[c] spherical convex [d] cylindrical concave
48. Nuclear explosive devices were tested in India at
[a] Sriharikota [b] Bangalore
[c] Pokharan [d] Kanchipuram
49. The gradation and standardization of agricultural products are conducted through
[a] Food Corporation of India.
[b] Directorate of Marketing and Inspection.
[c] Indian Standards Institution.
[d] Central Statistical Organization.
50. The luster of the metals is because of
[a] high density, due to closed packing of atoms.
[b] high polish
[c] reflection of light due to the presence of free electrons.
[d] absorption of light due to the presence of cavities
51. Flat footed camels can walk easily in sandy deserts because
[a] pressure on the sand is decreased by increasing the area of the surface in contact.
[b] pressure on the stand is increased by increasing the area of the surface in contact.
[c] pressure on the sand is decreased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact.
[d] pressure on the sand is increased by decreasing the area of the surface in contact.
52. The reason for a swimming pool to appear less deep than the actual depth is
[a] refraction. [b] light scattering.
[c] reflection. [d] interference.
53. Alternating current is converted into direct current by a
[a] transformer. [b] dynamo
[c] oscillator. [d] rectifier.
54. German silver used for making utensils is an alloy of
[a] copper, silver, nickel. [b] copper, zinc, nickel.
[c] copper, zinc, aluminium [d] copper, nickel, aluminium.
55. Which one of the following is used to dissolve noble metals?
[a] Nitric acid [b] Hydrochloric acid
[c] Sulphuric acid [d] Aqua regia.
56. Gunpowder was invented by
[a] Roger Bacon. [b] Colt.
[c] C.V. Raman. [d] Dr. Gatting.
57. The purity of gold is expressed in carats. The purest form of gold is
[a] 24 carats. [b] 99.6 carats.
[c] 91.6 carats. [d] 22 carats.
58. Petroleum consists of a mixture of
[a] Carbohydrates. [b] Carbonates.
[c] Hydrocarbons. [d] Carbides.
59. For which invention is Otto Hahn famous?
[a] Atom bomb. [b] Television
[c] X-rays [d] Miner's safety lamp.
60. Which one of the following is not a plant product?
[a] Caffeine [b] Piperine
[c] Nicotine [d] Saccharin.
61. Which of the statements is correct about India's national income?
[a] Percentage share of agriculture is higher than services
[b] Percentage share of industry is higher than agriculture
[c] Percentage share of services is higher than industry
[d] Percentage share of services is higher than agriculture and industry put together.
62. Who among the following has been appointed as the eleventh President of the World Bank for a five- year term with effect from July 1, 2007?
[a] John Wolfensohn [b] Paul Wolfowiz
[c] Robert Zoellick [d] David Morgan.
63. Who among the following has been awarded the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2005?
[a] Aparna Sen [b] Govind Nihalani
[c] M.S. Sathyu [d] Shyam Benegal
64. Permanent Revenue Settlement of Bengal was introduced by
[a] Lord Clive [b] Lord Hastings
[c] Lord Wellesley [d] Lord Cornwallis
65. In which year was the Indian Space Research Organization [ISRO] founded?
[a] 1967 [b] 1969
[c] 1970 [d] 1974.
66. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
[a] Indonesia – Jakarta [b] Maldives –Male
[c] North Korea- Seoul [d] Zimbabwe- Harare.
67. Which of the following is the largest parliamentary constituency in terms of area?
[a] Barmer [Rajasthan] [b] Arunachal West [Arunachal Pradesh]
[c] Ladakh [Jammu & Kashmir] [d] Uttarakhand East [Uttarakhand]
68. The first Commonwealth Games were held in the year 1930 at
[a] London [the UK]. [b] Sydney [Australia]
[c] Hamilton [Canada]. [d] Auckland [New Zealand].
69. The Nuclear Non- Proliferation Treaty came into force in
[a] 1967 [b] 1970
[c] 1971 [d] 1974.
70. Which State of India has the largest percentage of poor?
[a] Bihar [b] Chhatrisgarh
[c] Orissa [d] Jharkhand
71. The island of Corsica is associated with
[a] Mussolini [b] Hitler
[c] Napolean Bonaparte. [d] Winston Churchill.
72. The headquarters of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries is located in
[a] Vienna. [b] Riyadh.
[c] Kuwait City. [d] Abu Dhabi.
73. When are the 19th Commonwealth Games scheduled to be held in Delhi?
[a] December, 2008 [b] November, 2009
[c] October, 2010 [d] February, 2011.
74. Jamini Roy distinguished himself in the field of
[a] Badminton [b] Painting
[c] Theatre [d] Sculpture.
75. What percentage of India population is below the official poverty line?
[a] Below 30 per cent [b] 30 per cent to 35 per cent
[c] Above 35 per cent but below 40 per cent
[d] Between 40 per cent and 45 per cent.
ANSWERS
1. [d] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [a] 5. [c] 6. [c] 7. [a] 8. [a] 9. [b] 10. [b]11. [c] 12. [a] 13. [b] 14. [d] 15. [b]16. [d] 17. [b] 18. [c] 19. [a] 20. [d]21. [d] 22. [a] 23. [d] 24. [c] 25. [b]26. [a] 27. [c] 28. [a] 29. [b] 30. [c]
31. [d] 32. [a] 33. [d] 34. [d] 35. [b]36. [d] 37. [b] 38. [b] 39. [d] 40. [b]41. [a] 42. [d] 43. [b] 44. [b]
45. [c]46. [a] 47. [c] 48. [c] 49. [c] 50. [c]51. [a] 52. [a] 53. [b] 54. [b] 55. [d] 56. [a] 57. [a] 58. [c] 59. [a] 60. [d]61. [d] 62. [c] 63. [d] 64. [d] 65. [b]66. [c] 67. [c] 68. [c] 69. [b] 70. [c]71. [c] 72. [a] 73. [c] 74. [b] 75. [a]

GK on INDIAN CONSTITUTION( MCQs)

INDIAN CONSTITUTION MCQs
1. Who administers the Oath of Office to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. The Speaker
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Vice President

2. Who has the authority to proclaim emergency in the States?
A. The Governor
B. The Chief Minister
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister

3. Which of the following amendments relates to the Local Government Institutions?
A. 52nd Amendment
B. 73rd Amendment
C. 66th Amendment
D. 70th Amendment

4. The real executive authority of the State is
A. the Governor
B. the Speaker
C. the Council of Ministers
D. the Chief Justice of High Court

5. The minimum age for being eligible to become the Prime Minister of India is
A. 21 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 35 years

6. When was the President’s Succession Act enacted?
A. 1955
B. 1959
C. 1964
D. 1969

7. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?
A. The President
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Parliament
D. The Lok Sabha

8. How many times the President has declared the financial emergency?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Never

9. Who decides the disputes regarding the election of the President?
A. The Speaker
B. The Supreme Court
C. The Election Commission
D. The Parliament

10. How many seats are reserved for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
A. 10 seats
B. 15 seats
C. 20 seats
D. 30 seats

11. Who is legally competent to declare war?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Lok Sabha
D. The Parliament

12. What is the maximum age prescribed for election as President of India?
A. 58 years
B. 60 years
C. 62 years
D. No such limit

13. The President of India can declare emergency
A. on his own
B. on the recommendations of the Council of Ministers
C. on the recommendations of the Prime Minister
D. on the recommendations of the Parliament

14. The monthly salary of the Vice President of India is
A. Rs.75,000
B. Rs.100,000
C. Rs.150,000
D. Rs.125,000

15. Who has the right to convene the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament in India?
A. The Prime Minister
B. The President
C. The Vice President
D. None of them

16. The chief source of political power in India is
A. the people
B. the constitution
C. the Parliament
D. the Parliament and the State Legislatures

17. The Prime Minister is the
A. Head of the State
B. Head of the Government
C. Head of the State and the head of the Government
D. None of these

18. A bill in each House is subject to
A. one reading
B. two readings
C. three readings
D. four readings

19. Consider the Statements:
I. Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeals
II. Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution
III. Supreme Court’s advice is binding on the President of India
IV. Supreme Court is empowered to appoing Judges of lower courts
A. I alone is correct
B. I and II are correct
C. I, II and III are correct
D. All are correct

20. The President of India is
A. the head of the Government
B. the head of the State
C. the head of the Parliament
D. the head of the Judiciary

21. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Speaker
D. Prime Minister

22. The modern State is described as
A. a police state
B. a welfare state
C. a laissez faire state
D. autocratic state

23. Which of the following States does not have a bi-cameral legislature?
A. Bihar
B. Karnataka
C. Rajasthan
D. Maharashtra

24. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
A. the President
B. the Chief Minister
C. the Parliament
D. the State Legislature

25. Can one person act as Governor for more than one State?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only for three months
D. Only for six months

26. Right to free education within certain limits is
A. guaranteed as a fundamental right
B. enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy
C. outlined in the Preamble of the constitution
D. ignored by constitution

27. Now Tamil Nadu has
A. Unicameral Legislature
B. Bicameral Legislature
C. Tricameral Legislature
D. None of the above

28. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.
A. Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State and Cabinet Ministers
B. Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers and Cabinet Ministers
C. Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers

29. Vice President of India presides over
A. House of People
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Both A & B
D. Union Cabinet

30. Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
A. 24th Amendment
B. 30th Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment
D. Union Cabinet

31. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of
A. the President
B. Parliament
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General
D. Finance Minister

32. Planning Commission is established by
A. The Cabinet resolution
B. The Parliament resolution
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister

33. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): It is not the duty of the state to maintain the rights of the citizens.
Now select the answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

34. A bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament without
the recommendation?
A. the presiding officers of both houses of parliament
B. the legislatures of the States concerned
C. the Supreme Court
D. the President

35. In a federal state
A. state are more powerful than the centre
B. centre is more powerful than states
C. a presidential form of government functions
D. constitution effects division of powers between the center and states with safeguards
against transgression of jurisdiction

36. Who holds the power of Judicial Review in India?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court
D. The Parliament

37. Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration
of tribal areas?
A. Orissa
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. Assam

38. The Governor of a State
A. enjoys office for five years
B. enjoys the confidence of the President
C. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister
D. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

39. Under what circumstances can some of the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
A. On the orders of a Court
B. When President’s rule is imposed
C. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation
D. During financial emergency

40. Who among the following acts as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. Vice President of India
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. One who is elected by the Members of Rajya Sabha
D. The leader of the party having the highest number of members in Rajya Sabha

41. Which one of the following is not matched correctly?
Scheduled in the Indian Costitution Deals with
A. Ninth Schedule Provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection
B. Eighth Schedule Languages
C. Seventh Schedule Union, Sate and Concurrent
D. Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha

42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. If both the President and the Vice President resign, the Speaker of Sabha will act as President till a new President is elected.
B. The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for contesting the Presidential election
C. In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for the residual period of the President’s tenure as in the U.S.A.
D. In India, the President a part of Parliament

43. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary Form of Government is the
A. Sovereignty of Parliament
B. Written Constitution
C. Accountability of the Executive to the Legislature
D. Independence of the Judiciary

44. Which one of the following is true regarding the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. One has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman
B. One need not necessarily be member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice Chairman, as is in the case of Chairman
C. One has to be a member of either House of Parliament for election to the post of Vice- Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. There is an established convention that the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha belongs to the main Opposition Party in Rajya Sabha

45. Indian Constitution has been amended how many times since India became a Republic?
A. 75 times
B. 76 times
C. 100 times
D. 80 times

46. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a Constitution for India?
A. Swaraj Party in 1934
B. Congress Party in 1936
C. Muslim League in 1942
D. All Parties Conference in 1946

47. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
A. the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
B. special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
C. discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
D. special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

48. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem, since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
II. it will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Conscience and practise and propagation of
religion
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
A. I and III are correct
B. II and III are correct
C. I, II and III are correct
D. None is correct

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Prime Minister of India
A. is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
B.can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
C. has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet
D. has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretion ary power vested with the President of India

50. B.R.Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
A. West Bengal
B. the Bombay Presidency
C. the then Madhya Bharat
D. Punjab

51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (R): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

52. Which of the following statements is not true about the National Commission for Women?
A. The Commission was set up by an act of Parliament and started working in 1992
B. The Commission has decided to setup Maha Mahila Adalats across the country very soon
C. The Commission has recommended to amend the dowry Act, Hindu Marriage Act, and Special Marriage Act and the Govt. has accepted the same
D. The Commission has powers to investigate and review functions of various law making agencies in India

53. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the
A. President, on the recommendation of the Governor
B. Parliament
C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
D. Governor on a recommendation by the State cabinet

54. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution,
but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
A. Keshavananda Bharati Case
B. Golak Nath Case
C. Minerva Mills Case
D. None of these

55. On what ground, the Supreme Court of India can accept the appeal against any High Court Judgement?
A. It is the apex court of the country
B. There is sufficient legal jurisdiction in it
C. That is the Fundamental Right of the person who appeals
D. Law Minister has recommended in the regard

56. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
A. Just after being placed in the Parliament
B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading
C. After partial debate/discussion
D. After difference between two houses

57. In what way the Finance Commission can recommend to the centre for transfer of resources
to States?
A. Debt, subside and tax share
B. Debt and subsidy
C. Debt and tax share
D. Subsidy and tax share

58. To uphold and protect the sovereignity, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been made in the
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Preamable to the Constitution
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Fundamental Rights

59. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India?
I. Public Accounts Committee
II. Union Ministry of Finance
III. Committee of Public Undertakings
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

60. Communal representation presupposes the existence of
A. a joint electorate
B. separate electorates
C. reservation of seats
D. there can be both joint as well as separate electorates

61. How do Directive Principles of State Policy differ from Fundamental Rights?
A. The former are meant for Central Government, whereas the latter are for the States
B. The former are not a part of the Constitution, whereas the latter are the part of the Constitution
C. The Directive Principles are not enforceable, whereas the Fundamental Rights are enforceable
D. None of these

62. The date of 26th January when India became a Rapublic with a new Constitution was adopted, because
A. on that day in 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded
B. on that day in 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place
C. on the day in 1930, the Congress observed the Independence Day in the country
D. on that day in 1941, the Quit India Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi

63. A federal system
A. must have a written costitution
B. must have an unwritten constitution
C. may have either written or unwritten constitution
D. may not have any constitution

64. Which Fundamental Right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions?
A. Right to equality
B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to life and liberty
D. Cultural and educational rights

65. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati Raj Institution in the country?
A. The Preamble
B. The Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Fundamental Rights
D. None of these

66. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and
A. 7 judges
B. 9 judges
C. 11 judges
D. 25 judges

67. The phrase ‘procedure’ established by law’
A. gives immense powers in the hands of the courts regarding judicial review
B. limits the authority of the Indian Courts in the matter of judicial review and the courts cannot go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
C. gives the authority to the courts to go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
D. None of these

68. What is the minimum duration of a stay necessary, before a person can apply for Indian
citizenship?
A. 5 years
B. 3 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years

69. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
A. the concept of Welfare State
B. Right to Equality
C. a Directive Principle
D. the Right to Freedom

70. The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with
A. setting up of a Separate State of Uttarakhand
B. reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislatures
C. grant of greater attonomy for Jammu and Kashmir
D. relates to carrying forwards backlog vacancies of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes

71. To whom a case of dispute in the election of the President of india be referred?
A. Election Commission
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Central Cabinet

72. Bills are normally introduced in the Parliament
A. during question hour
B. during zero hour
C. soon after lunch break
D. shortly before the House adjourns for the day

73. In India, with several characteristics of a Federal Government, the supremacy lies in
A. Constitution
B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court
D. Bureaucracy

74. Which one of the Directive of Principles was not included in the Original Constitution, but was added by the 42nd Amendment?
A. To create respect for Inter-National law
B. To avoid concentration of wealth
C. To provide free legal aid
D. To ensure equal wages for equal work

75. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India acts as the Chief Accountant and Auditor for the
A. Union Government
B. State Governments
C. Union and State Governments
D. Neither Union nor State Governments

76. The theory of Check and Balances is a unique feature of the
A. British Constitution
B. Indian Constitution
C. American Constitution
D. Japanese Constitution

77. To which of the following Bills, the President must accord his sanction whithout sending it
back for reconsideration?
A. Ordinary Bills
B. Money Bills
C. Bills passed by both the Houses of Parliament
D. Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution

78. One of the chief defects of Universal Adult Franchise is
A. it gives chance to a common man to be associated with the decisions of the government
B. it protects the rights of minorities
C. it leads to rule by ignorants
D. it lays emphasis on the principle of equality

79. Which one of the following sets of special powers have been conferred on Rajya Sabha by the Constitution?
A. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and creation of one or more All-India Services
C. To amend the elction procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his retirement
D. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

80. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. autonomy of States
B. the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
C. the removal of a Chief Minister
D. the appointment of a Governor

81. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
C. Both of these
D. None of these

82. To whom should the President of India address the letter of his resignation?
A. The Prime Minister of India
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. The Vice-President of India

83. 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
A. to grant statehood to Uttaranchal
B. to make elementary education compulsory
C. to make army service mandatory
D. None of these

84. Which one of the following right was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution by
Dr.Ambedkar?
A. Freedom of Speech
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Equality
D. Right to Freedom of Religion

85. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:
I. There is no age limit his appointment
II. He can be a member of a Parliamentary Committee
III. He Shall have the right of audience in all the courts
IV. The term of his office is fixed by the Constitution of India
Of the statements
A. I and II are correct
B. I, II and III are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct
D. III and IV are correct

86. The Prime Minister of India resigns when he does not command majority in the Lower
House of Parliament is
A. in accordance with a stipulation in the Constitution
B. not explicitly state in the Constitution but followed as a convention
C. peculiar to Indian democracy
D. a legacy of the Government of India Act, 1919

87. Which of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt
with by them are correctly matched?
I. Article 352 Proclamation of emergency
II. Article 370 Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir
III. Article 14 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
IV. Article 40 Organisation of Village Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV

88. Which one of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of a State in India?
A. His role as Chancellor or the Universities in the State
B. His power to dismiss the ministry
C. His power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
D. His power to return a Bill to the State Legislative Assembly for reconsideration

89. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only on the Upper House
D. he has become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as
the Prime Minister

90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent
of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
amendment
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

91. Which one of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be member of either House of Parliament
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Neither I nor II
B. Both I and II
C. I alone
D. II alone

92. Consider the following two statements
Assertion A) : The Rajya Sabha under Article 312 is empowered to create new all-
India service in national interest.
Reason (R) : The Rajya Sabha can define national interest better.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

93. In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought; expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’… do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
A. twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
B. twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
C. twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
D. None of these

94. The Constitution of India is
A. unitary
B. perfectly federal
C. federal with a strong centralising tendency
D. confederal

95. Consider the following Statements
Assertion (A) : Democracy renders minority ineffective ensures the tyranny of the majority
Reason (R) : For all practical purposes, democracy means rule by the majority Of these statements
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

96. Match List I (Schedule to the Constitution of India) with List II (Subject dealt with by the
Schedule) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
I. First a. Territorial extent of Indian States and Union Territories
II. Eighth b. Languages
III. Ninth c. Validation of Acts/Regulations passed by the State Legislature
IV. Tenth d. Disqualification on grounds of defection of members of the House
I II III IV
A. b a d c
B. a b d c
C. b a c d
D. a b c d

97. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is looked after by a
A. Council of Ministers
B. Lt. Governor
C. Governor
D. The President

98. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the State “to provide free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years of age”?
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Special Provisions related to certain classes

99. Which of the following Commission has been given a statutory status by the Central Government?
A. Central Water Commission
B. Central Vigilance Commission
C. National Human Rights Commission
D. None of these

100.To enable the scheduled cases and scheduled tribes to avail themselves of benefits of the
preferential right conferred on them by the Constitution, the President of India notifies them
as such under
A. Articles 339 and 340
B. Articles 340 and 341
C. Articles 341 and 342
D. Articles 342 and 343

ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. A 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. C
31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C
41. D 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B
51. B 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. B 66. D 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. D
71. C 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. B
81. B 82. D 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. D
91. B 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. C

Sociology- economic Awareness MCQs

1.The President of India appoints the Chairman and Members of the National Human Rights Commission on whose recommendations?
(A)Prime Minister of India
(B)Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C)Home Minister
(D)Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(E)All of the Above
Ans: (E) All of the Above

2.In which year India ratified International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights ?
(A)1966
(B)1968
(C)1976
(D)1978
(E)1979
Ans: (E) 1979

3.In which of the following cities is located the technology center of Unique Identification Authority of India?
(A)Delhi
(B)Hyderabad
(C)Ranchi
(D)Hyderabad
(E)Bangalore
Ans: (E) Bangalore

4.The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) links 37 constituent laboratories with diverse research portfolios as varied as drug discovery to oceanography. Recently we read in the newspapers that CSIR’s latest imitative is launching of an Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) Programme. What is the main purpose of Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) Programme?
(A)To make India a hub of drug research and development
(B)To bring the scientists of the world under one roof
(C)To bring down the costs of the new drugs and make them affordable to all
(D)To make India self reliant in Drug production
(E)All of above
Ans: (C) To bring down the costs of the new drugs and make them affordable to all

5.On the recommendation of which of the following committees the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has been releasing money of the Centers share of recapitalization assistance to the primary agriculture credit societies (PACS) in various states to introduce
cooperative reforms ?
(A)N R Narayanmurthy Committee
(B)Prof A. Vaidyanathan Committee
(C)K Madhav Das Committee
(D)R Gandhi Committee
(E)None of them
Ans: (B)Prof A. Vaidyanathan Committee

6.Express Remit is the brand name of a remittance facility by which of the following banks?
(A)State Bank of India
(B)Punjab National Bank
(C)Bank of Baroda
(D)ICICI Bank
(E)HDFC Bank
Ans: (A) State Bank of India

7.Which among the following is the most important source region of NRI remittances to India ?
(A)North America
(B)Europe
(C)Middle East
(D)Asia Pacific
(E)South America
Ans: (A) North America

8.As per the guidelines issued by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in February 2009, any company with more than what fraction of foreign equity should be considered as a foreign company?
(A)51%
(B)59%
(C)61%
(D)71%
(E)75%
Ans: (A) 51%

9.To achieve 100% financial Inclusion in India, Reserve Bank of India had had issued a circular in July 2009 permitting cash withdrawals of up to Rs 1,000 per day from PoS (Point of sale) terminals at merchant establishments. Recently which of the following bank has become first Bank of India to offer this facility?
(A)State Bank of India
(B)Punjab National Bank
(C)Bank of India
(D)Union Bank of India
(E)UCO Bank
Ans: (D) Union Bank of India

10.Which among the following sector of Indian Economy is maximum dependent on economic developments in advanced nations?
(A)Manufacturing Sector
(B)Agricultural Sector
(C)Mining Sector
(D)Textile Sector
(E)Services Sector
Ans: (E) Services Sector

11.Many a times we read in the newspapers that Government of India is promoting private investment in the country through PPP mode that is Public private partnership. What is the target of the private sector investment in the country by 2012 ?
(A)$ 150 Billion
(B)$ 200 Billion
(C)$ 300 Billion
(D)$ 400 Billion
(E)None of them
Ans: (B) $ 200 Billion

12.Which among the following country has been consistently on the top slot for last four years and this year too in the latest version of World Bank’s annual report “Doing Business 2010″?
(A)Sweden
(B)New Zea Land
(C)Singapore
(D)China
(E)South Korea
Ans: (C) Singapore

13.What is Doing Business 2010 rank of India?
(A)129
(B)131
(C)132
(D)133
(E)135
Ans: (D) 133, last year it was 132 and it has gone down by 1

14.As per the World Bank Report, which among the following in India is comparatively easy for outsiders planning to do business here?
(A)Dealing with Construction Permits
(B)Registering Property
(C)Getting Credit
(D)Enforcing Contracts
(E)Employing Workers
Ans: (C) Getting Credit

15.Which among the following cities ranks first in ease of doing business in India?
(A)Gurgaon
(B)Chandigarh
(C)Hyderabad
(D)Ludhiana
(E)Bangalore
Ans: (D) Ludhiana

16.For the first time in India, in which of the following Budgets “basic reforms in the international financial and trading system ” was stressed in India?
(A)1969
(B)1975
(C)1983
(D)1991
(E)1992
Ans: (C) 1983

17.The recently presented Economic Survey says ” India’s unpardonably large bureaucratic costs are like a valuable resource buried under the ground, waiting to be excavated and used” . The unpardonably large bureaucratic costs refer here to which of the following?
(A)Cost incurred in recruitment and training of bureaucrats
(B)Costs incurred in getting a project cleared in government offices as bribes
(C)Hidden Costs due to unwanted delay in projects approval
(D)Low efficiency of the bureaucracy of the country due to political instability
(E)All of the above
Ans: (C) Hidden Costs due to unwanted delay in projects approval

18.Bring out the incorrect statement regarding India’s textile sector:
(A)India’s textile and clothing sector currently employs 35 million people
(B)After agriculture it is second largest provider of employment
(C)Textile sector has a tendency to shrink as the GDP and Economy grows
(D)Textile sector is a major absorber of low-skilled labor
(E)All of above are correct statements
Ans: (C) statement C is incorrect. This natural tendency has been seen in agriculture sector and not in textile sector

19.Year 2009-10 was a time of inflationary concerns for our country witnessing unusual double digit inflation. In the history of Independent India, which among the following decades had shown 3 consecutive years of double-digit, food price inflation?
(A)1970s
(B)1980s
(C)1990s
(D)2000s
(E)1960s
Ans: (A) 1970s. 1972-73-74

20.Who among the following is the chairman of the Technology Advisory Group which has the mandate to fix the framework for large and transformational IT projects of the government?
(A)Kaushik Basu
(B)C Rangrajan
(C)Nandan Nilkeni
(D)Ashowk Chawla
(E)None of them
Ans: (C) Nandan Nilkeni

21.The following options A to E are news headlines related to Union Budget 2010 , taken from some financial newspapers. Among them bring out the one that deals with Transfer Payments ?
(A)Government projects Rs. 248664 crore for Interest payments
(B)Government projects Rs. 301331 as corporation tax in 2010-11
(C)Government will spend Rs. 60000 Crore on Defense in 2010-11
(D)The Subsidy has been Reduced from Rs. 131025 crore to 116224 crore in Union Budget 2010
(E)The government pitches for Rs. 40000 crore for Disinvestment
Ans: (D) The Subsidy has been Reduced from Rs. 131025 crore to 116224 crore in Union Budget 2010

22.In which of the following example the marginal productivity is close to zero?
(A)7 people working in a bank branch and 3 more join them after a massive recruitment drive of the bank
(B)7 people from a family working in a farm and 3 more join to them because they lost their jobs due to poor markets
(C)7 teachers teaching in a school and 3 more join them to teach 3 different subjects to a class of 100 students
(D)7 people are recruited by a company in unreserved category and 3 more recruited one of them was a physically disabled person
(E)None of them
Ans: (B) Option B is an example of Hidden Unemployment

23.As we all know that economic liberalization began in true sense in July 1991 in India. Which among the following was the first step of the government while taking the country towards Economic Liberalization?
(A)Substantial changes in industrial license policy were made
(B)The Rupee was made convertible
(C)Procedural formalities for Foreign direct Investment were removed
(D)The government significantly reduced the taxes
(E)The Government launched a highly focused Foreign Trade Policy
Ans: (A) Substantial changes in industrial license policy were made

24.Who among the following is not a member of National Development Council?
(A)The Prime Minister of India
(B)The President of India
(C)The members of Planning Commission
(D)The Chief Minister of states
(E)All of above are members
Ans: (B) The President of India

25.Bhoodan Yojna which was a measure of gifting land by the rich landlords to the poor laborers was initiated by whom among the following?
(A)Acharya Narendra Dev
(B)Acharya Vinoba Bhave
(C)Raj Naraina
(D)Medha patkar
(E)Swami Sundaranand
Ans: (B) Acharya Vinoba Bhave

26.As per 2001 census, which among the following states had lowest density of population per sq. kms?
(A)Mizoram
(B)Sikkim
(C)Nagaland
(D)Manipur
(E)Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (E) Arunachal Pradesh

27.In a condition of monopoly, the monopolist has a control over the price he charges for his product. In which of the following conditions he will be able to maximize his profits?
(A)Lowering the prices if the demand curve is elastic
(B)Lowering the price, if the demand curve is inelastic
(C)Raising the price, if the demand curve is elastic
(D)In all of above situation
(E)in none of the above situations
Ans: (A) Lowering the prices if the demand curve is elastic

28.A competitive firm maximizes its profit when _______?
(A)MR=AR
(B)MR=MC
(C)MC=AC
(D)MC=AR
(E)None of the above
Ans: (B) MR=MC

29.Rs. 10000 are realized after selling 100 units and Rs. 14000 are realized after selling 120 Units. In this example, Rs. 200 is ________?
(A)Price per unit
(B)marginal cost
(C)marginal profit
(D)marginal revenue
(E)maximum profit
Ans: (D) Marginal Revenue

30.Who among the following is India’s current Minister of State (Expenditure & Financial Services)?
(A)S S Palanimanickam
(B)Namo Narain Meena
(C)Dinsha J. Patel
(D)Jitin Prasada
(E)None of them
Ans: (B) Namo Narian Meena

31.What is the current limit for collateral free loansto micro and small enterprises (MSEs) sector in India?
(A)Rs. 5 Lakh
(B)Rs. 10 Lakh
(C)Rs. 15 Lakh
(D)Rs. 8 Lakh
(E)None of them
Ans: (A) Rs. 5 Lakh

32.As we read in the newspapers that Reserve bank of India is introducing Base rate System which shall be the new reference rate for determining lending rates for banks. The Base Rate System would bring in more transparency to loan pricing for customers. On which date is being introduced in India?
(A)April 1, 2010
(B)June 1, 2010
(C)July 1, 2010
(D)January 1, 2011
(E)April 1, 2011
Ans: (C) July 1, 2011

33.Recently RBI has released on its website, the report of the Committee on Comprehensive Regulation of Credit Rating Agencies. Who among the following is the chairman of this committee?
(A)Dr. K.P. Krishnan
(B)Subir Gokarn
(C)Ashok Chawla
(D)Shri Vipin Malik
(E)Dr A.Vasudevan
Ans: (A) Dr. K. P. Krishnan

34.”On-line Electric Vehicle,”(OELV) is world ‘ s first commercial wireless electric vehicle. It was launched on March 9, 2010 in which of the following countries?
(A)Japan
(B)United States
(C)South Korea
(D)China
(E)India
Ans: (C) South Korea

35.With traded over 161 million contracts in 2009 , MCX has in February 2010 became word’s ______largest commodity Exchange?
(A)Second
(B)Third
(C)Fourth
(D)Fifth
(E)Sixth
Ans: (E) Sixth

36.Recently we read in the newspapers that attorney generals of seven states of United States are investigating over the charges over world’s largest seed producer that it has abused its market power to lock out competitors and raise prices. Which of the following companies is this world’s largest seed producer?
(A)Asgrow
(B)McKenzie Seeds
(C)Burpee Seeds
(D)Monsanto
(E)Unwins Seeds
Ans: (D) Monsanto

37.Recently Bt varieties Bollgard-I and Bollgard-II were amid news as the reports in various news papers say that Bollgard-I has been phased out in many countries and Bolgard-II are preferred. These verities are of ________?
(A)Bt Cotton
(B)Bt Brinjal
(C)Bt Tomato
(D)Bt Potato
(E)None of them
Ans: (A) Bt Cotton

38.Which among the following is the largest importer of Indian marine products as we read in the newspapers that it has decided to adopt the 20 per cent sampling method on Indian marine Products, especially shrimp, from April 2010 which shall lead to difficulty in exports?
(A)China
(B)Japan
(C)United States
(D)European Union
(E)Australia
Ans: (D) European Union

39.Which among the following organizations holds the largest stake in India’s top depository, National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)?
(A)National Stock Exchange
(B)IDBI Bank
(C)Specified Undertaking of the Unit Trust of India (SUUTI)
(D)Bombay Stock Exchange
(E)None of them
Ans: (B) IDBI Bank

40.What is Amfis related to in India?
(A)Banking
(B)Mutual Funds
(C)Marketing & Finance
(D)Power Industry
(E)Information Technology
Ans: (B)Mutual Funds Association of Mutual Funds of India (Amfis)

HEADS OF IMPORTANT GOVERNMENT OFFICES,INSTITUTIONS / OTHER ORGANIZATIONS: INDIA

Heads of important Government Offices,Institutions / Other organizations
1. Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India: K. G. Balakrishnan
2. Chairman of Sangeet Natak Academy: Ram Niwas Mirdha
3. President of Sahitya Academy: Sunil Gangopadhyay
4. Chief Executive Officer of Prasar Bharti of India: Baljeet Singh Lalli
5. Chairman of the Planning Commission of India : Dr. Manmohan Singh
6. Deputy chairman of the Planning Commission of India: Montek Singh Ahluwalia
7. President of Confederation of Indian Industries (CII): Venu Srinivasan
8. Director General of Confederation of Indian Industries (CII): Chandrajeet Banerjee
9. President of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industries (FICCI): Harsh Pati Singhania
10. President of National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM): Som Mittal
11. Chairman of National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM): Pramod Bhasin
12. Chairman of National School of Drama: Amal Allana
13. Comptroller & Auditor General of India (CAG): Vinod Rai
14. Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC): Pratyush Sinha
15. Director General of Council of Scientific & Industrial Research: Samir K. Brahmachari
16. Director of Indian Agriculture Research Institute(IARI): Hari Shankar Gupta
17. Chairman of the Election Commission / Chief Election Commissioner: Naveen Chawla
18. Attorney General of India: Goolam E. Vahanwati
19. Solicitor General of India : Gopal Subramanium
20. Law minister to the Government of India :- M. Veerappa Moily
21. Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India: T.S. Vijayan
22. Chairman cum Managing Director of (CMD) of General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC):Yogesh Lohia
23. Chairman of Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority (IRDA): J. Hari Narayan
24. Chairman of National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD): Umesh Chandra Sarangi
25. Chairman of University Grants Commission (UGC): S. K. Thorat
26. Chairman of Press Trust of India (PTI): Viajy Kumar Chopra
27. Governor of Reserve Bank of India: D. Subbarao
28. Chairman of the State Bank of India: O.P. Bhatt
29. Secretary General of Lok Sabha: P.D.T. Achary
30. Speaker of the Lok Sabha: Meira Kumar
31. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha: Kariya Munda
32. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha: Mohammad Hamid Ansari
33. Deputy chairman of the Rajya Sabha: K. Rahaman Khan
34. Secretary –General of the Rajya Sabha: Vivek Agnihotri
35. Chairperson of the Children Film Society of India: Nandita Das
36. Chairman of National Film Development Corporation of India: Om Puri
37. Chairman of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC): D. P. Aggarwal
38. Chairman of Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI): Dr. J.S. Sarma
39. Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India: K. M. Chandrashekhar
40. Chairman of Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI): C. B. Bhave
41. President of ASSOCHAM: Swati Piramal
42. Central Information Commissioner (CIC): Presently vacant
43. Chief of the Army Staff: Deepak Kapoor
44. Chief of the Air Staff: P. V. Naik
45. Chief of the Naval Staff: Nirmal Kumar Verma
46. Chief of the Integrated Defense staff: Suresh Chand Mukul
47. Director of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): Ashwini Kumar
48. Chairman of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO): K. Radhakrishnan
49. Chairman of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB): Amrita Patel

SNAP/ UBI BANK PO 2011: CURRENT PROBABLE QUESTIONS FROM BUSINESS AND ECONOMY

1. The fi rst-quarter group profi t of Tata Steel ending on June 30 was…
a. ` 1,625 crore
b. ` 1,725 crore
c. ` 1,825 crore
d. ` 1,925 crore

2. Name the telecom operator which has initiated the Braille Bill service in India.
a. Vodafone
b. Reliance
c. Airtel
d. Idea

3. NMDC has acquired the entire private land required for its proposed ` 15,000 crore steel plant at…
a. Jagdalpur
b. Godda
c. Dumka
d. Samastipur

4. The organisation to sign an agreement with the All India Football Federation (AIFF) to support the development of India Under-16 football team is

a. Bharti Enterprises
b. Mittal Group
c. Tata
d. Reliance ADA Group

5. Nestle will invest ` 350 crore to set up a manufacturing plant at… to produce the 'Maggi' range of food products.
a. Maharashtra
b. Karnataka
c. West Bengal
d. Gujarat

6. Vedanta Resources will take a majority stake of … in Cairn India.
a. $10 billion.
b. $13.3 billion.
c. $14.8 billion.
d. $17 billion.

7. NMDC and Kobe Steel have signed a contract for acquiring stake in iron ore project in …
a. New Zealand
b. Austria
c. Australia
d. New Guinea

8. Mahindra and Mahindra plans to acquire which Korean auto maker for an estimate of $400-450 million?
a. Ssangyong
b. Maruti
c. Hundai
d. Ford

9. Name India’s largest and only telecom operator offering nationwide CDMA and GSM mobile services.
a. Tata Indicom
b. Virgin mobiles
c. Vodafone
d. Reliance Communications

10. Tradus.in has launched an online book store at TradusBooks. in, offering book enthusiasts a wide assortment of titles, ease of shopping and free shipping of books across India. Tradus.in is a sister concern company of …
a. Ibibo Web Pvt Ltd
b. Yahoo
c. Times Shopping
d. 160by2.com

11. German carmaker Mercedes Benz launched a new version of its E-Class sedan priced at
a. ` 63 .4 lakh
b. ` 64.5 lakh
c. ` 65 lakh
d. ` 65. 5 Lakh

12. Name the Indian software services fi rm which has won a New York court ruling to withhold taxes from a $70 million settlement payment to Britain-based Upaid Systems Ltd.
a. Mahindra Satyam
b. Infosys
c. IBM
d. HP

13. According to the Lakshmi Vilas Bank the total income of the bank for the fi rst quarter ended June 2010 has grown at 16.80 per cent to …
a. ` 174.99 crore.
b. ` 274.99 crore.
c. ` 374.99 crore.
d. ` 474.99 crore.

14. What is the amount that Supertech is planning to invest to build an integrated township
on Yamuna Expressway near Greater Noida?
a. ` 1,100 crore
b. ` 1,500 crore
c. ` 1,750 crore
d. ` 2,000 crore

15. Which fi rm is Malaysia's state investor that controls 95 per cent of Singapore hospital
operator Parkway Holdings?
a. Khazanah
b. Apollo Munich
c. Max
d. Bursa Malaysia

16. In tune with its ` 1,500-crore expansion plan, JK Paper signed an agreement with IT product maker … to introduce a new range of high-end digital printing papers in India.
a. Hewitt
b. HP
c. Hewlett Packard
d. Luxar

17. What is the amount that Future Group’s unit Pantaloon Retail planning to raise from its IPO?
a. ` 600 cr
b. ` 650 cr
c. ` 700 cr
d. ` 750 cr

18. ASUS Technology is aiming to capture at least … market share in the Window mobile smart phone segment in the next two years.
a. 15 %
b. 17.5 %
c. 20 %
d. 22%

19. German engineering major, Siemens bagged an order to supply an RH vacuum degassing
plant to the Rourkela Steel plant from Steel Authority of India (SAIL). The deal is worth …
a. 7.5 million euro
b. 10 million euro
c. 15 million euro
d. 17.5 million euro

20. HDFC Trustee Co Ltd acquired 2.44 per cent stake in which textiles and apparels maker
company in August?
a. Raymond
b. Grasim
c. Peter England
d. Armani

21. State-owned oil fi rms incurred 4,745 crore annual losses on pre-revised rates, prompting the government to more than double the price of state administered natural gas to …
a. $3.2 per mmBtu
b. $4.2 per mmBtu
c. $5.2 per mmBtu
d. $6.2 per mmBtu

22. Lanco Infratech reported a whopping 68 per cent jump in its profi t after taxes, at ` 194.7
crore for the quarter ended June 30. The company posted a profi t after tax of …
a. ` 105.9 crore
b. ` 115.9 crore
c. ` 125.9 crore
d. ` 135.9 crore

23. How many circles have been allotted to Vodafone for 3G Mobile services?
a. 9
b. 11
c. 14
d. 17

24. Which Indian industrialist has been found guilty in the Bhopal Gas tragedy?
a. Ratan Tata
b. Keshub Mahindra
c. Dheeru Bhai Ambani
d. AAzim Premji

25. Spice Jet has been acquired by…
a. Reliance ADA Group
b. Mahindra n Mahindra
Group
c. Sun Group
d. Larsen & Tourbo


26. Who has been appointed as the new chief fi nancial offi cer (CFO) of Colgate Palmolive?
a. Dilip Chenoy
b. Keshub Mahindra
c. Udai D. Raj
d. Pauk Alton

27. According to CSO, India’s revised GDP growth rate for the fi scal year 2009-2010 is …
a. 7.2 % to 7.4%
b. 7.4 % to 7.2%
c. 4.7 % to 2.7%
d. 2.7 % to 4.7%

28. CIL has joined hands with GAIL and RCF to set up a coal gasification project at which place?
a. Talchar in Orissa
b. Puri in Orissa
c. Cuttak in Orissa
d. Udaigiri in Orissa

29. The total income of the Unitech Group has increased by... percent during the April-June
quarter.
a. 33.87 per cent
b. 43.87 per cent
c. 53.87 per cent
d. 63.87 per cent

30. The Tata Group has become the country's wealthiest group, with a market value of about…
a. ` 3,00,000 crore
b. ` 3,21,000 crore
c. ` 3,71,000 crore
d. ` 3,95,000 crore

31. Jos Alukkas, a leading gold and diamond trader in the country, registered a total business
turnover of … in 2010-2011.
a. ` 550 crore
b. ` 820 crore
c. ` 1020 crore
d. ` 1120 crore

32. Engineering fi rm Era Infra has bagged a highway project that involves four laning of a road stretch from Muzaffarnagar in UP to Haridwar in Uttrakhand. The worth of the project is...
a. ` 1,000 crore
b. ` 1,010 crore
c. ` 1,100 crore
d. ` 1,110 crore
QUESTION BANK
33. During the 2009 – 2010 fi scal, India's cement export declined by 29 per cent to …
a. 2 million tonnes
b. 2. 10 million tonnes
c. 2. 27 million tonnes
d. 2. 50 million tones

34. By which date has would India temporarily shut down BlackBerry services if New Delhi's
concerns about security are not addressed?
a. 31st August
b. 15th September
c. 30th September
d. 1st October

35. The net profi t of Bosch Ltd at the quarter ended on June 30, 2010 is…
a. ` 18.82 crore
b. ` 20.97 crore
c. ` 22. 82 crore
d. ` 26 .97 crore

36. Niraj Cement Structurals signed a contract with the Public Works Department of Bastar
Circle, Jagdalpur. The worth of the deal is…
a. ` 71.27 crore
b. ` 71. 72 crore
c. ` 72. 17 crore
d. ` 72. 71 crore

37. Areva T&D India has signed a contract worth ` 110 crore with Power Grid Corporation of
India Ltd to set up a 765 KV extra high voltage sub-station at …
a. Sasaram, Bihar
b. Vaishali, Bihar
c. Rajgir, Bihar
d. Gaya, Bihar

38. AstraZeneca Plc will pay $198 million to settle claims against its anti psychotic drug…
a. Seroquel
b. Olanzapine
c. Clozapine
d. Loxitane

39. Who has been appointed as the director on Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation (HSBC) Asia-Pacifi c board?
a. Shivani Lal
b. Deepali Pruthi
c. Vikas Puniya
d. Naina Lal Kidwai

40. The total number of registered subscribers at Tata Teleservices Ltd by the end of July 2010 was …
a. 71 million
b. 73 million
c. 75 million
d. 79 million

41. Name the organisation that has received an order for 1,000 buses, worth around $26 million from the People's Leasing Company in Sri Lanka.
a. Honda
b. Ashok Leyland
c. Tata Motors
d. Bajaj

42. BHEL signed a contract worth 2,525 crore with Abhijeet Infra for setting up a 1,080 MW
thermal power plant in which state?
a. Jharkhand
b. Uttaranchal
c. Bihar
d. Chhattisgarh

43. Who has been appointed as the Offi cer Employee Director on the Board of Directors of Andhra Bank?
a. Vir Sanghvi
b. N Rajagopal Reddy
c. Rajeev Ranjan
d. Narayan Murthy

44. Indiabulls Real Estate bought the National Textile Corporation's 8.3 acres of prime mill land in Mumbai for…
a. ` 1,405 crore
b. ` 1,055 crore
c. ` 1,505 crore
d. ` 1,005 crore

45. The local car sales in India rose to an annual percent of … as on July 2010.
a. 38%
b. 36%
c. 35%
d. 32%

46. Vascon Engineers has acquired 90 per cent of equity shares of GMP Technical Solutions Pvt Ltd worth how much?
a. 62.62 crore
b. 62.63 crore
c. 63.62 crore
d. 63.63 crore

47. Name the mobile application store which will be offering Reliance Communications its extensive catalog of over 65,000 free mobile applications.
a. Navteq
b. GetJar
c. BlackBerry
d. Google

48. The new poverty Index introduced by UNDP is …
a. Multi Dimensional Poverty Index
b. Human Poverty Index
c. BPL Index
d. Social Poverty index

49. The symbol of Indian rupee has been designed by whom?
a. Dewang Patel
b. Harsha Madiraju
c. Venkat Raman Kumar
d. D.Udai Kumar
QUESTION BANK
50. Which sector amongst the following contributes the maximum to India’s GDP?
a. Shipping
b. Services
c. Mining
d. Manufacturing


Answers
1. c. Rs 1,825 crore
2. b. Reliance
3. a. Jagdalpur
4. a. Bharti Enterprises
5. b. Karnataka
6. a. $10 billion.
7. c. Australia
8. a. Ssangyong
9. d. Reliance Communications
10. a. Ibibo Web Pvt Ltd
11. b. Rs 64.5 lakh
12. a. Mahindra Satyam
13. b. Rs 274.99 crore
14. d. Rs 2,000 crore
15. a. Khazanah
16. c. Hewlett Packard
17. d. Rs 750 cr
18. c. 20%
19. b. 10-million euro
20. a. Raymond
21. b. $4.2 per mmBtu
22. b. Rs 115.9 crore
23. a. 9
24. b. Keshub Mahindra
25. c. Sun Group
26. d. Pauk Alton
27. a. 7.2 % to 7.4%
28. a. Talchar in Orissa
29. c. 53.87 per cent
30. c. Rs 3,71,000 crore
31. b. Rs 820 crore
32. c. Rs 1,100 crore
33. c. 2. 27 million tonnes
34. a. 31st August
35. b. Rs 20.97 crore
36. a. Rs 71.27 crore
37. a. Sasaram, Bihar
38. b. Seroquel
39. d. Naina Lal Kidwai
40. c. 75 million
41. b. Ashok Leylanda
42. a. Jharkhand
43. b. N Rajagopal Reddy
44. c. Rs 1,505 crore
45. a. 38%
46. b. Rs 62.63 crore
47. b. GetJar
48. a. Multi Dimensional Poverty Index
49. d. Udai Kumar
50. b. Services